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2 Thessalonians 2

2 Thessalonians Chapter 2

2023 - Reading the OT passages before NT this year...and there was a lot in Isaiah this morning.  So just reading straight through this today.

2021-2, The header for this chapter is "The Man of Lawlessness".  It is NOT "The Anti-Christ".  I believe Bobby Kelly is right about that whole thing.  We have labeled this last ruler Antichrist but in fact Son of Perdition and Man of Lawlessness are his true Biblical titles.  Antichrist is a more general term for those who aggressively oppose the work of Christ. 

2022 - This first verse:

1 Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, [2Th 2:1 ESV]...

Two things here: 

1, the coming of our Lord, The Greek word translated "coming" is parousia.  This word can mean actual presence, appearance, and advent.  But the question is, in this case, does it mean the second coming, or does it mean the rapture.  The word is used 24 times in each of the mGNT and the TR.  Here are some of them, starting with uses that are printed in red:

27 For as the lightning comes from the east and shines as far as the west, so will be the coming of the Son of Man. ...

37 For as were the days of Noah, so will be the coming of the Son of Man. ...

39 and they were unaware until the flood came and swept them all away, so will be the coming of the Son of Man. [Mat 24:27, 37, 39 ESV]

Matthew uses the word three times, right in a row, same chapter, and "THE" end times chapter in the Bible.  27 and 39 are both about the sudden and unexpected "flash" that is the parousia.  37 is about the environment in which it will happen.  So far, the "suddenness" sounds more like the rapture than the second advent.  This one also goes with that interpretation:

23 But each in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, then at his coming those who belong to Christ. [1Co 15:23 ESV]...and this next one seems particularly weighty in establishing the parousia as the rapture:

15 For this we declare to you by a word from the Lord, that we who are alive, who are left until the coming of the Lord, will not precede those who have fallen asleep. [1Th 4:15 ESV].  This passage using parousia is two verses before the verse that uses "harpazo" in the same context.  I think this is pretty conclusive that the parousia in view here is the harpazo.  The coming of our Lord that Paul is telling them about is the rapture.

2, our being gathered together.  The Greek word translated "gathered" is episynagoge.  A gathering together in one place, or assembly.  This is NOT the same word used in 1Thes 4.17, which is the famous "harpazo" in Greek and "rapturo" in Latin, both meaning essentially the same thing - to snatch or take away.  Here are the two uses of episynagoge in the NT:

1 Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, [2Th 2:1 ESV]

25 not neglecting to meet together, as is the habit of some, but encouraging one another, and all the more as you see the Day drawing near. [Heb 10:25 ESV]

This word is far less definitive about the specific time that is in view.  The word most often used in the NT for "gathering" is "syllego".  Here are some interesting uses of that word that may shed light on the time in question:

28 He said to them, 'An enemy has done this.' So the servants said to him, 'Then do you want us to go and gather them?'

29 But he said, 'No, lest in gathering the weeds you root up the wheat along with them. [Mat 13:28-29 ESV]

The parable of the wheat and the tares.  I believe this parable is about the pre-Millennial judgment after the second advent.  There is also this:

32 Before him will be gathered all the nations, and he will separate people one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats. [Mat 25:32 ESV].  The word here is "synago", related, obviously, to episynagoge.  I believe the sheep and goat judgment and the wheat and tare judgment are the same.  Pre-Millennial judgments.

So...I think this year, that parousia is pretty specifically referring to the rapture, and that episynagoge is more likely about the second advent.  That is the opposite of what I thought each word meant prior to this study.  So as Paul lays it out, first you get the parousia - the rapture - and then the assembly, the gathering, at the second advent.  And as always, I don't know anything about Greek, so this is just how I'm understanding things this year.


2024 - So...for what possible reason should we assume that these verses, or even this whole chapter, is just about one thing and not about both?  Perhaps Paul deliberately phrases things this way - uses these specific words - in order to make sure we know he is talking about both the rapture - the sudden appearance in the clouds - and the second advent - the episynagoge.  And let's not forget that back in II 1:7, he referenced what he called the "apokalipsis".  So three words, which may always mean different things in terms of end times, or may in fact all reference the exact same thing.  Perhaps only context will tell, and that may not always be definitive...in fact, it may not always work at all!

2024 - Just checked...and I use the phrase "day of the Lord" 36 times in 1 and 1Thess.  This one I just typed makes it 37.  So wow, that's a lot and tells me that this phrase is quite important.  What I need to do now is go back and read all that stuff, plus the MSB note that talks about all the places this phrase is used.  FOR NOW, I believe the "Day of the Lord" that Paul is talking about in this case is the beginning of wrath.  Paul has said the church will be saved FROM wrath, and yet here are the Thessalonians being increasingly persecuted, times gettin harder, and then someone says "Hey, remember in Matthew 24 where it says tribulation worse than ever before seen?"  Well this is it...but I know that cannot be right, and for the same reason Paul gives!  The MoL has not yet appeared!  In that verse in Matthew, he is already there. 

So, since the idea that the church in Thess was already into the "wrath of God" period based on what Matt 24 says is so easily refuted, what they did next to prove their point - and their expertise - was to circulate this fake letter from Paul!  You have to lie to show that the church goes through wrath.  It does not. 

See the little outline below on what all has to happen - and be RECOGNIZED BY THE CHURCH - before The Day of the Lord, which I now see is the beginning of wrath.  And think of what this means....The church will see the arrival of the MoL, go through a LOT of tribulation as a result of his arrival, but then gets removed before wrath.  Seems simple right now!


2021-2, The subject of II 1 was judgment.  The subject of II 2 is here:  1 Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, [2Th 2:1 ESV].  This is clearly about the rapture.  At least.  If you separate the compound sentence, it could be first about the second advent, tying it back to chapter 1, and second about the rapture - and being about both, we may be about to learn how those two are related.  OR, it could be exclusively about the rapture since Jesus will return and initiate that - I believe prior to the wrath of God being poured out.  This verse:

2 not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. [2Th 2:2 ESV]

So there seems to have been a coordinated attack on this church trying to undermine what they had been taught about the end times and the return of Christ.  It was a spiritual attack, there were "human" teachers preaching this false information, and a forged letter from Paul was circulating also saying that the rapture - well actually, saying that "The day of the Lord" had already come and gone, and here they were still.  Either they were not saved and so did not participate, or it was a non-event really, much less important than they thought.  What an insidious attack.  Wasn't it Corinth, where Paul was at this time, where there was false teaching that there was no resurrection at all?  Paul was successfully putting that one down, so here's another tack - he already came, and you didn't get resurrected.  Instead of "you won't be", this attack puts his coming in the past and says "you missed it".  The implication being that you can stop all this Jesus stuff now, it's over and done with.


2021-2,  Shouldn't we ask now what the precise meaning of "day of the Lord" might be?  I think I've looked before, and it can mean one day or a period of time.  As in Great Tribulation - however long it lasts - might be thought of as "the day of the Lord", and the rapture itself - very short-lived, might be the day of the Lord.  No, I have that wrong.  The MSB says that the source of distress in Thessalonica was that they expected to be raptured out before "the day of the Lord".  Likely Paul had taught them this would be the case while he was there. But here they were, being persecuted, suffering, and so on, and someone was telling them that this persecution was in fact part of the final "day of the Lord".  So their understanding of the "day of the Lord" was at least the tribulation period, and at most the whole 7 years.  In any case, they thought it had started without a rapture and were shocked to still be here.  That's what MSB says.  I know that John MacArthur teaches a pre-trib rapture.  So don't be thinking this is the only interpretation.


(((2021-2, Oh my!  There is an MSB note at 1Thess5:2 that starts "There are 19 indisputable uses of "the Day of the Lord" in the OT and 4 in the NT."  This would be an excellent thing to study, especially given that JM has already gathered all the scriptures about it!)))

(((2022 - Pre-Wrath Rapture by Rosenthal has them all listed also.  He sets out to show that the Day of the Lord is when Wrath begins, and says that the rapture is just before that.  A good second source for this study.)))


The Thessalonians seem to have been obsessed with the second coming.  Chapter 2 opens with Paul saying they should not be so concerned.  Apparently, someone had sent a fake letter, as if from Paul, telling them the rapture was over and done with, and they were left behind.  So Paul is going to clear that up.  HERE, he gives them additional signs to look for, unlike his approach in I Thessalonians.  They are:


1.  The falling away

2.  The Man of Sin (lawlessness) is revealed.  Also called the Son of Perdition. 

     b.  He opposes God

     c.  He exalts himself above all that is called God

     d.  He exalts himself above all that is worshiped

     e.  He sits in the temple of God

     f.   He shows himself that he is God.


2024 - What about this "apostasy", this "falling away".  I have never spent any time trying to understand anything about that.  Some kind of worldwide abandonment of God?  Worldwide worship of Satan perhaps?  The tables flip and it is those who believe that are seen as evil, and need to be "converted" to an every man for himself kind of existence?  You can kind of see that progression as ongoing.  First, it got ok to be an atheist.  Now it is ok not only to deny belief but to make fun of those who do believe.  But then somehow, it has become ok to worship Satan - no one makes fun of that - but it is not ok to worship God?

Or could it be that Islam - and a God purported to be the same God as the one in the Bible - continues to expand and take over country after country, and we get to a point where sharia law is the worldwide law?  Islam would most certainly take a dim view of Christianity and the worship of Jesus, since in their view that flies in the face of the whole idea of "One God". 


2025 - Here are the only two uses of "apostasia" in the NT:

3 Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, [2Th 2:3 ESV]

21 and they have been told about you that you teach all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, telling them not to circumcise their children or walk according to our customs. [Act 21:21 ESV].  It is here translated "forsake".  It is a noun in both places.

It is a noun in both verses.  In 2Th that makes sense, but it seems to be used more as a verb by Luke.  Other translations say to abandon, to turn away, to forsake Moses.  But that is an infinitive in English.  It is not technically a noun, it is a verb used as a noun.  Infinitives can also be used as adjectives and adverbs - so a versatile but non-specific form of verb.  In Greek it is a straight up noun, not a verb turned into a noun. 

ESV translates is "the rebellion".  That works fine.  It could also say the abandonment or the defection.  The sense of it is that some group previously loyal to one idea/one person/one government/one God is going to transfer their loyalty to the enemy of that to which they were previously loyal.  Think a battalion of the US Army suddenly turning and attacking their own.  This is about betrayal, and I get the sense of piercing fear in those who do not abandon their loyalties.  Think "they could be right here among us and we cannot tell", or "we are no longer safe even in the arms of our wives"...remember that verse from elsewhere?  Where was that?  I think I FB'd that. 

Here is that other passage:

5 Do not trust in a neighbor; Do not have confidence in a friend. From her who lies in your bosom Guard your lips. [Mic 7:5 NASB95].  Wow.  The sense of these really resonates.  I read the rest of Micah 7...I cannot find any clue to pin down the time he means.  But the two - 2Th 2:3 and Mic 7:5 - seem to be about exactly the same time!  If we accept that, it means Micah was talking about something post-Paul, not about something going on in Israel in his own day.  The description in Micah is of a time when evil is pervasive at all levels.  No one is trustworthy.  All are corrupt.  All will betray you for a nickel.

In this environment the man of lawlessness is unmasked.  The Greek word is apokalypto.  This is contrasted with vs 1 where we have the parousia of the Lord. We can see how differently we should interpret these.  The MoL will already be  here, already be a recognized face, but his true role, his "position" in the end times will suddenly come to light and the church will be shocked and awed of a sudden as who he really is in "unveiled" to every eye.  But the parousia of Jesus is more of an appearing.  He was not there, was not present physically...and then he appears.  Very different things.  I think also a very good way for us to understand the connotations of these two words.


2025 -  An observation about vs 4: 

4 who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God. [2Th 2:4 ESV]. 

There is only one "seat" in the Temple, and that is the mercy seat in the Holy of Holies.  If the MoL sits there....no doubt is possible. 

Does Ezekiel's Temple have a mercy seat?  No!  The Mercy Seat was the "lid" on the Ark of the Covenant.  The Ark of the Covenant is gone, and they don't build a new one for Ezekiel's Temple.  No seat is described.  So we might expect that when this happens, some kind of throne will be moved into the Holy of Holies in Ezekiel's Temple.


((((2021 - BUT, is Paul talking about the rapture or is he talking about the second coming at the end of GT?  I guess this is really an easy question....if we believe the rapture is anything but post GT, the Thessalonians will already be gone at the second coming.  If the second coming and the rapture happen together, then....A different interpretation is possible.  In any other event, the rapture would have already come.  So Paul is telling them about the rapture and what will precede it.  Pre-rapture, we will see the Man of Lawlessness take his seat in the temple of God and proclaim himself to be God.  The saved, pre-rapture, will see that event and know.  Then and only then is it "at the very doors".))))

2022 - We have to remember this verse in Matt 24:  21 For then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been from the beginning of the world until now, no, and never will be. ... comes BEFORE this verse in Matthew 24:

29 "Immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. [Mat 24:21, 29 ESV]

Great Tribulation comes BEFORE the signs in the Sixth Seal.  So again, I believe Paul is telling them about events that occur BEFORE THE RAPTURE.  The Rapture is in view, not the second advent.  If the rapture occurs ANYTIME before the second advent, which I think is a pretty universally held position, then the church will come with at the second coming.  The church WILL BE GONE during the Day of the Lord.

2022 - Did Titus actually have some kind of throne put into the temple that he could sit on?  He'd have had to bring one in because no chairs are included in the temple furnishings.  I think we know from purely secular sources that he had a three sacrifices made in the temple, one of which was a pig.  But Titus' dad was vying for emperor when Titus sacked Jerusalem.  It would seem unlikely that he would declare himself the god of the Hebrews while his father was trying to become the god of Rome.  Titus did no "miracles", deceived no one into thinking that he had god-like powers.  I say all this to say that to me at least, it is unlikely that Paul is talking about 70 AD when he gives this list of things to look for.  And if it didn't happen in 70 AD, then it has still not happened, because there is no temple, and the Jews have no temple in which the man of sin can sit and declare himself a god.  So.  I see how you could make a case for a pre-trib rapture if 70 AD was in view, and Titus was the man of sin.  But I do not think this was about the events and persons of 70 AD.  I think vs 9 is further corroboration of this.  False signs, wonders, and so on accompany the coming of the man of sin.  Titus didn't do any.  This is not about him, these events are still future.


So things get bad before they get better.  A common theme.  Also, somewhere during this falling away, a man with two titles will appear.  Man of sin, Son of Perdition.  Also, depending on translation, Man of Lawlessness.  I assume this is the antichrist, but Paul doesn't call him that.  Would need to establish that connection somehow.  Will he actually trot out these specific titles for all the world to hear?  Wouldn't people be put off by someone called the Man of Lawlessness proclaiming that he is God?  Perhaps vs 11 explains how this can happen. 


Also, this says that Antichrist will appear - will be revealed - BEFORE the rapture.  Since Paul is trying to calm the Thessalonians down following this fake letter saying Christ has already come, Paul is saying that until they have seen the things in this list - until the man of sin is REVEALED, that is, recognized by the Thessalonians, then there has been no "Day of the Lord".

YET, I wonder...Thessalonians was written before the fall of Jerusalem.  Many say that Titus did all those things in the list when he sacked Jerusalem.  But I am not so sure.  That's the thing.  No one is sure.  The argument that it was about 70 AD gains credibility from:

vs 7 says he is already here, but is being restrained until the proper time.  Who is restraining him?  If he is a man, a strong angel could do it.  But I suspect this one is something like Judas, whom Satan entered to carry out his attempt to destroy Jesus.  A man betrayed Jesus, but Satan was in full control of the things he did at that time.  I suspect the Son of Perdition will be much the same.  He will be allowed to invade some mortal man and act according to his own ambitions to dethrone God Himself.  vs. 9 seems to say this very thing.


But this verse could also have been about Titus and the sacking of Rome.  Jesus after all said the temple would be thrown down, not one stone upon the other, before he returned.


2021-2, 2 Thess 2 vss 3-12.  Consider this an "update" of the previous few paragraphs.  I have learned some things since I made those notes.  First, the title "Antichrist" is a misnomer.  Son of Perdition is a better title.  Thanks to Bobby Kelly for preaching our complete over use of the term Antichrist.  The Bible does not use this name of the one who comes to power in the last days and proclaims himself God.  The Bible calls him these other things.  Son of Perdition, Man of Lawlessness, and a few others.  If we are to believe the MSB note on 2, then these verses - 3-12 - are about things that will happen pre-rapture.  There are some things in the passage that one might point to and suggest that Paul is mixing pre-rapture and pre-advent2 together.  For this year, lets stay with it being strictly pre-rapture.  If so, then this Man of Lawlessness will seat himself in the temple and declare himself to be God BEFORE the rapture.  So when does he come to power?  He is the one horn that replaces the three.  When is that?

Hmm...I cannot find it right now.  This is CRUCIAL to understanding when the rapture occurs.  Must find it!

2022 -  What about here:  8 I considered the horns, and behold, there came up among them another horn, a little one, before which three of the first horns were plucked up by the roots. And behold, in this horn were eyes like the eyes of a man, and a mouth speaking great things. [Dan 7:8 ESV].  Also this:

1 And I saw a beast rising out of the sea, with ten horns and seven heads, with ten diadems on its horns and blasphemous names on its heads. [Rev 13:1 ESV]

5 And the beast was given a mouth uttering haughty and blasphemous words, and it was allowed to exercise authority for forty-two months. [Rev 13:5 ESV]


2022 - This whole 70 AD idea - that Titus was the Man of Lawlessness, because that inescapably goes with it -  would mean that the in contrast to Thessalonica, since all these things in Paul's list happened in 70 AD, the next thing Christians today are looking for is the rapture.  All the signs were complete 2000 years ago.  We'd be saying that all Paul's "signs" were seen in 70 AD, so next is the rapture itself.  No more signs, no more warnings.  Wow...If I want to be a pre-trib rapture guy, THIS would be the way to argue it!  There is no getting around the idea that these signs must come before the rapture.  But if 70 AD was when these signs appeared, all we're waiting for is that trumpet that will come when we least expect it.  But to take this view, we now need to totally re-look at what Revelation is about. 


2022 - This verse:

7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work. Only he who now restrains it will do so until he is out of the way. [2Th 2:7 ESV].   What is this mystery?  Mystery, in the NT, usually is about something that was always there in scripture, but not previously understood.


2025 - This one:

8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will kill with the breath of his mouth and bring to nothing by the appearance of his coming. [2Th 2:8 ESV]. 

This gives us a lot of useful information.  The MoL will DIE, will in fact BE KILLED, by Jesus himself, when Jesus appears.  Both "will kill" and "bring to nothing" are future active indicative.  Things that we can be sure had not happened in Paul's time.  So how does this fit:

20 And the beast was captured, and with it the false prophet who in its presence had done the signs by which he deceived those who had received the mark of the beast and those who worshiped its image. These two were thrown alive into the lake of fire that burns with sulfur. [Rev 19:20 ESV].  The beast is not the MoL?  This also indicates that the beast is not a "system", not just an "iconic picture" of end times, but an individual entity. 

No no no...Neither of these was killed.  2:8 says the MoL will be killed.  So 2Thess2:8 does NOT correlate with Rev. 19:20.  Great.  That recognition creates more problems tan it solves!!!  If not 19:20, then WHEN is the MoL killed? 

This is the only other possibility that I can see:

9 And they marched up over the broad plain of the earth and surrounded the camp of the saints and the beloved city, but fire came down from heaven and consumed them, 10 and the devil who had deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and sulfur where the beast and the false prophet were, and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever. [Rev 20:9-10 ESV].  The MoL would have to have survived the thousand year Millennial, only to be burned up with fire - killed by the Lamb - along with Satan's army that surrounds and attacks Jerusalem at the last battle.  This battle is not at Armageddon, it is at Jerusalem.  19:20 is the Battle of Armageddon.

I don't know how to fit this all in.


2022 - I think 9-12 are about great trib.  AFTER the man of sin is recognized and WHILE he is trying to wipe out both church and Jews and BEFORE the rapture. I think this ties back to Matt 24's use of the term great tribulation.


(((2022 - I have worn myself out on the first 6 verses again.  About 2 1/2 hours worth on 6 verses.  So once again, I am reading through the rest, and will focus on 7-17 some other time.)))


In vs 13, Paul moves on.  Verse 13 is also a pretty good proof text for predestination, or in strict Calvinist terms, of Unconditional Election, which is not quite the equivalent of predestination.

[2Th 2:13 KJV] 13 But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth:


In vs. 14, even those chosen from the beginning come to salvation through the gospel.


2021-2, Wow.  There is so very much information in 2Thess2, and in the past, the reading plan has required me to read ALL of 1 and 2 Thess the same day.  That is a month's worth of study.  No wonder I am so weak on these things.  I am just reading on through  vss 13-17 this time, and I didn't scratch the surface of 6-12.  So NEXT YEAR, work on those - or hopefully I can break it into a separate study.  So much here!


2024 - Look at vss 16-17.  Do they not look like the end of a letter from Paul?  It doesn't have the references to specific people that many Pauline letters have, but this wording seems quite familiar.  And 3 looks like maybe it was tacked on a week or so later.  Like he finished the letter...but then decided to add a little more.  I mean, compare 2:16 with 3:16! 


2024 - I also note, realizing perhaps for the very first time, that just as you cannot study Revelation with studying Daniel, you also cannot study Revelation without studying 2Thess 2:3-12.  This passage is vital.  It MUST fit into any end times chronology that we can propose.  It is a necessary piece of the puzzle.  I point out that saying the rapture comes before the first seal is opened must deal with the idea that the MoL will have already declared himself God at that point - before the seals even start.  And THAT MEANS that in Matt 24, the great tribulation that occurs BEFORE the MoL appears, must all happen even longer before the first seal.  These verses in 2Thess2 say unequivocally that the church will see the MoL declare himself to be God, from his throne in the Temple.  The church will still be here, not yet raptured out, at that point.  I can't see how that works out at all.


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