Chapter 30
Another prophecy starts (2022-or maybe continues is a better word. This is labeled a "lament" rather than a prophecy, about Egypt, but the command to Ezekiel specifically says "prophesy".). This one not dated. Goes into verse format. "The day of the Lord is near". Wail. Here's the whole of the verse:
3 For the day is near, the day of the LORD is near; it will be a day of clouds, a time of doom for the nations. [Eze 30:3 ESV] John MacArthur mentioned this verse because it says a time of doom. This is end times prophecy, invariably. MSB says in this case, it is near/far prophecy. All the land around Egypt, she and all her allies, will fall together. Given that the last of 29 says God gave Egypt to Neb, then we see these prophecies in verse format about the fall of Egypt, it must be a near/far prophecy. Egypt is not going to fare well in the latter days. And it will be a poor country until then. This verse:
10 "Thus says the Lord GOD: "I will put an end to the wealth of Egypt, by the hand of Nebuchadnezzar king of Babylon. [Eze 30:10 ESV] vs 13 says there will be an end to Memphis and her idols. There really is no Memphis these days. The verse format goes through 19, and because of this judgement, they will know that God is Lord. Pretty much all of these prophecies begin in this way. As Judah fell, as God turned His back on His own Temple, He also judges all the nations surrounding Israel. He demonstrates His power over all the nations of the world at that time. All that He does just screams that He is the God of all. He prophesies through Ezekiel about the fate of their "known world", and it all comes true as predicted. The fulfillment of such detailed prophecy is the proof that God is the writer of history.
2026 - If it's proof, why do so few believe it? Because they require reinforced concrete, not just true beyond a reasonable doubt. For proof, you would have to show - probably with an extant and unchallengeably authentic and dated manuscript - that the prophecy preceded the events. Otherwise, you are open to a charge that the manuscript was post-historical and merely recounted known events and phrased them as prophecy. We do not require this of other manuscripts. Think Iliad and Odyssey. We put a lot of truth in them because we found Troy. That "confirms" that these must be correct though the oldest manuscript is
2024 - I don't see how vss 3-4 can be separated from each other as to time. The day of the LORD, as of this writing, is always end times wrath. Egypt, it seems, will not fare very well after Revelation 6. I am fine with the destruction of Egypt by Nebuchadnezzar, as "payment" for the effort he expended on Tyre without success, being a sort of "preview" of what is coming at the end. Hmm....I wonder if that is how we ought to think of all those "near/far" prophecies? Not as "fulfilled now, and fulfilled again later", but as "what we are about to see here in Egypt as God vents his wrath on Judah and all the nations surrounding Judah who have persecuted her, is just a preview of the utter destruction of the place that is coming at the end of the age. What is about to happen is NOT about that future thing that will happen. What is about to happen is at a lower intensity than what will happen. But look at this, and understand in preview form, what is prophesied for Egypt...or Tyre, or Sidon...Then we see that what Neb did to Tyre was only the preview of what Alexander would do. This "hermeneutics" has possibilities. I need to start trying to apply this POV to prophesy.
2024 - If we read Eze 30 this way, then the implication is that Egypt will rise to a level where other nations are allied with her. Think of the '67 war. Think of today. Egypt is not a world power, but she is certainly a local power. If I look at prophecy as above, then I would predict that Egypt will get still more powerful as the last days near, that she will become a formidable enemy of Israel, which she is currently NOT, and will become the leader of a number of Middle Eastern and North Eastern African countries. That's what we'd predict here.
2024 - But look then at vss 10-19. These are most definitely a prophecy about Nebuchadnezzar's conquest of Egypt. In this case, we have specific prophecies about Egypt both of Neb's "near" conquest and of the fall of Egypt at the Day of the LORD. Most prophecies are not like this. Most imply a near, and speak of a far, to which the proposed hermeneutic would apply. But that doesn't work here since there are two different, easily distinguished prophecies. Neb is mentioned by name in 10-19. In fact, the "near" prophecy of Egypt goes all the way to through the end of the chapter, speaking of both Pharoah and Neb. BUT, it is hard to separate the prophecy of 2b-4 from 6-26 in terms of the details of what will happen. Perhaps there won't be a lot of difference in the details, and we depend upon the difference in "the day of the LORD is near" and "in the eleventh year, in the first month, on the seventh day of the month..." to divide two specific prophecies from a preview and a prophecy.
2024 - This is an "experimental" way of looking at things. It could be ludicrously wrong...or it could be right. Time will tell.
vs 20 backs up and is dated 11th year, first month, seventh day. God says he has broken the arm of Pharaoh, and not bound it, so that it will never again hold the sword. As God breaks the arms of Pharaoh, so that his arms fall, God will strengthen the arms of Babylon to conquer them. So they will know that God is God.
2026 - Can I "take apart" this prophecy and see it's parts? Specifically vss 20-26? I have noticed th at Ezekiel's prophecies seem very redundant with phrases repeated over and over. I am going to try and look at that in these six verses and see if I can establish a pattern, and then later, next year when I read this, I can see if the pattern with Ezekiel is always the same. Here are the verses:
20 In the eleventh year, in the first month, on the seventh day of the month, the word of the LORD came to me: 21 "Son of man, I have broken the arm of Pharaoh king of Egypt, and behold, it has not been bound up, to heal it by binding it with a bandage, so that it may become strong to wield the sword. 22 Therefore thus says the Lord GOD: Behold, I am against Pharaoh king of Egypt and will break his arms, both the strong arm and the one that was broken, and I will make the sword fall from his hand. 23 I will scatter the Egyptians among the nations and disperse them through the countries. 24 And I will strengthen the arms of the king of Babylon and put my sword in his hand, but I will break the arms of Pharaoh, and he will groan before him like a man mortally wounded. 25 I will strengthen the arms of the king of Babylon, but the arms of Pharaoh shall fall. Then they shall know that I am the LORD, when I put my sword into the hand of the king of Babylon and he stretches it out against the land of Egypt. 26 And I will scatter the Egyptians among the nations and disperse them throughout the countries. Then they will know that I am the LORD." [Eze 30:20-26 ESV].
Six times the fall of Egypt is mentioned. In four of those there is a reference to "the arms of Pharoah".
Beginning in vs 24, we see the means by which this will be accomplished. In 24, the arms of another ruler will be strengthened.
Neb's arms are mentioned twice, and then his weilding of God's sword is mentioned, making three times that Neb is built up compared to six times Pharoah is broken.
What has happened in the past:
In vs 21 the breaking of one of Pharoah's arms is past tense. He will not recover from this "weakening".
Why did it happen?
God has a reason for the lack of recovery. He is against Pharoah, vs 22.
What is the continuation?:
Future tense now, "I will break both arms". He will be powerless to defend himself, vs 22.
RESULT:
the Egyptians will be scattered, vs 23.
How is this to transpire?:
Neb to be strengthened, vs 24
Contrast:
Neb strengthened, Pharoah broken, vs 24
Full repeat of the contrast:
Babylon strengthened, Pharoah to fall, vs 25.
RESULT: THEN
God is the Lord.
What is the proof of this?
When Babylon attacks Egypt, presumably as fulfilment of this prophecy.
A second proof also offered. Two witnesses?:
When the Egyptians are scattered.
So...is this really a discernible pattern in Ezekiel's prophecies?
As I wrote the above, I had CGPT working on the same problem, using repeated phrases as markers.
Frankly, there's not much difference. I really need to compare two or more of these "repetitious" prophecies and see if they all work this way. Many are repetitious...Perhaps just a characteristic of Ezekiel's writing style without following any kind of recipe for prophecy?