Isaiah Chapter 9
2021 - Isaiah 8 had the one verse about a virgin birth, followed by all the near-term prophecies of the invasions of Assyria and Babylon. It was a pretty involved chapter that finally came together for me so I could understand it. That chapter ended with the collapse of the "information culture" of the time and deterioration into rage and criticism of the government, the card readers, the necromancers, and so on who had been telling everyone that all was going to be well.
1 But there will be no gloom for her who was in anguish. In the former time he brought into contempt the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, but in the latter time he has made glorious the way of the sea, the land beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the nations. [Isa 9:1 ESV]
A prophesy of Jesus? He will live in Capernaum, in the north, and spend much of his ministry in and around the sea of Galilee. Naphtali and Zebulun were northwest of the Sea of Galilee, toward the ocean. This is also the first area to fall to the invading Assyrians.
2021 - A spectacularly accurate prophecy, unmistakable in its object. Assyria will obliterate Zebulun and Naphtali, taking them all prisoner, and then settling "foreigners" in their lands. This is why the land was contemptible. It was settled by non-Jews. This is why they were "dark places". But Jesus is coming to that exact geography.
2024 - Look how very different is vs 1 in the KJV:
1 Nevertheless the dimness [shall] not [be] such as [was] in her vexation, when at the first he lightly afflicted the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, and afterward did more grievously afflict [her by] the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, in Galilee of the nations. [Isa 9:1 KJV]. First it was light, and then later it was much worse. NKJV follows this same translation. All the modern translations read "the opposite" really. They are saying KJV had it wrong, and that the dark times get better with Jesus, not worse later on. If you go with KJV, you kind of force this verse into a near term prophecy. That things are already bad up there but the Assyrians are going to plunge it into darkness.
The newer translations see it as all Messianic, and that Jesus will bring light to the area. The BLB interlinear version uses a translation directly from the Masoretic text that reads like the KJV. The verb is in the Hiphil Perfect and here is what it can mean when it is used that way:
(Hiphil)
to make heavy
to make heavy, make dull, make unresponsive
to cause to be honoured
KJV sees it as light to begin with and heavy later. This was the contrast that they picked. Looking back at the phrase translated "he lightly afflicted", this is also Hiphil Perfect and means:
(Hiphil)
to make light, lighten
to treat with contempt, bring contempt or dishonour
ESV goes with b and then c, KJV chose a and then a/b. So they are COMPLETELY different in the possible meanings they each chose. And the outcome of that comes out very different. Even so, we can see the consistency of each translation. ESV sees this verse as a contrast between what was and what will be, and the KJV translates it as an intensification of the current situation to an even worse situation later. I don't see how you can know for sure. Both are consistent in how they translate...we tend to go with Jesus being light in the darkness, KJV seems to have gone with bad to worse.
2024 - Note, in ESV the phrase "he has made glorious, in the NASB95 "he shall make it glorious". The verb here is in perfect, and implies an event. Not an ongoing continuous thing but an event. It is about how something happened, rather than about when it did/will happen.
2025 - Given the contrast in old and new versions, as represented by KJV vs ESV, we should understand that this verse is extremely difficult for even the best scholars of OT Hebrew to decipher, so it is quite presumptuous to think I might straighten it all out. BUT, it is important to have a position. It is important to be able to explain your position, so we need to choose something here. It seems to me that there is just too much difference here to just slide right past without taking a stand on which is right. So let's look at it:
2025 - This is the verse, first from KJV, then ESV:
1 Nevertheless the dimness [shall] not [be] such as [was] in her vexation, when at the first he lightly afflicted the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, and afterward did more grievously afflict [her by] the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, in Galilee of the nations. [Isa 9:1 KJV]
1 But there will be no gloom for her who was in anguish. In the former time he brought into contempt the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, but in the latter time he has made glorious the way of the sea, the land beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the nations. [Isa 9:1 ESV]
With the verses side by side, we see that the real contrast occurs in reference to "afterward"/"in the latter time". In the KJV Naphtali and Zebulon get much worse "afterward". In the ESV, "things are glorious". My goodness what a contrast! This is the verse we use to say that when Jesus came into Galilee and the north, he was a great light...or is it? NO! This is the verse about the light:
2 The people that walked in darkness have seen a great light: they that dwell in the land of the shadow of death, upon them hath the light shined. [Isa 9:2 KJV]. It is the very NEXT verse. Remembering that verse breaks are man made and not in the original texts means we can use this non-ambiguous phrase in vs 2 as justification for the way we interpret vs 1. And when we do that, the interpretation of vs 1 as in the ESV seems obviously correct!
2025 - ESV is the proper rendering given the context made readily available to us in vs. 2.
2025 - One last takeaway from the verbs...there are two, and both are in perfect tense. "lightly afflicted" early in the verse, and "more grievously afflicted" in that last phrase about later/latter that causes so much trouble. In perfect type, these are both done deals. So if we take that as literally happening in the past, then in Isaiah's time, the light was already shown. He would be referring to dimness long ago and a much better situation now. But that is surely not correct since the Assyrian invasion is still future. The other way to take the perfect is of the future, but accomplished already in God's will, so even though still future, it is carved in granite by God himself. The redemptive plan of God is already set in stone at this time when Isaiah is writing. We pretty much have to go with this way of interpreting what is meant by perfect type if we are saying the light is Jesus. I believe the fact that both these perfects have Hiphil stems and not Qal lends support to the second way of interpreting the perfect in this case. What a complexity is possible with a language like Hebrew.
2025 - But the verbs in vs 2 are Qal. To be consistent, in vs 2, the Qal stems say in the past. The light they see is already in the past.
This is important!!! Why is there no discussion about this?
2025 - At this point, I think the NASB95, in translating this "will see a great light" cannot possibly be right. They are using the English future tense to translate a verb of perfect type. That makes me very skeptical. They do the same with "light WILL shine". They translate a Hebrew Qal perfect as English future tense. I am very very bothered here. But I have spent 55 minutes on two verses. I am just going to read on out.
2025 - One more thought...as you read on through vvs 3 and 4 the situation described does not seem descriptive of the reception Jesus got in the north. It was northern cities that were warned of being treated more harshly than Sodom and Gomorrah, because they did not accept the evidence right in front of them. These two verses say we're talking further in the past, not Messianic at all, in these two vvs.
BUT SEE VS 6!!! I cannot unravel this!!!
Format changes after verse 1, from paragraph style to center justified, more like prose. I wish I knew why the change. Is it that way in the original - that is, in the source for the ESV? Did the scribes do this because Isaiah did it, and it got passed down? Why the change? Verse 1 introduces what will happen in "the latter time", so we are notified that the future is about to be discussed.
2 The people who walked in darkness have seen a great light; those who dwelt in a land of deep darkness, on them has light shone. [Isa 9:2 ESV]
I never understood that the darkness in this verse was the Assyrian invasion, and then the continued captivity and oppression of this area through the years. Surely they were taken away because of their sin, and because of the two calves, but then Jesus shows up here.
2023 - Note also that we were told in vs 1 that we are about to hear about "the latter time", and then the latter time turns out to be time when the Messiah arrives. I wonder if "latter time" and "latter days" are the same words in Hebrew, just with a different translation? Did a word search in ESV using BLB for "latter time", and this verse in Isaiah is the only place it is used. Looking at the Hebrew, it doesn't appear to me that "latter days" is even in there. It is "supplied" by the translators. The Hebrew does say "in earlier time" this happened, but better things. There is only the conjunction "but", so the translators in order to make clear that a contrast based on time was being presented, added "in latter times". So but [in latter times] Zebulon and Naphtali will be made glorious. So, a wild goose chase after a distinction that is not there at all.
Vss 3, 4 seem to be about the coming Millennial reign, when the Jews return home and serve their true King on David's throne. "...the rod of his oppressor, you have broken..." Is this about Jesus taking the throne and Israel being at the top of the hierarchy of nations? Depends on who the "you" first invoked in vs 3 "You have multiplied the nation..."
vs 5 seems to be more about a decisive future battle. These words:
5 For every boot of the tramping warrior in battle tumult and every garment rolled in blood will be burned as fuel for the fire. [Isa 9:5 ESV] I am sure I've seen a similar reference. A battle where it takes months to clean up the bodies afterward, and the spears are burnt for fuel. This description and that seem very similar...but I cannot find that one in Revelation. Not sure where it is exactly. I want to come back and find it. It seems important.
2021 - I think this passage is in Ezekiel. Yes, here is what I was thinking about:
[Eze 39:9 ESV] "Then those who dwell in the cities of Israel will go out and make fires of the weapons and burn them, shields and bucklers, bow and arrows, clubs and spears; and they will make fires of them for seven years,
[Eze 39:10 ESV] so that they will not need to take wood out of the field or cut down any out of the forests, for they will make their fires of the weapons. They will seize the spoil of those who despoiled them, and plunder those who plundered them, declares the Lord GOD.
It doesn't specifically talk about burning the blood. But it fits. I also don't know what battle is being described in Ezekiel. It is about Gog and Magog, but I don't know if it is the end of Trib/Great Trib or the end of the Millennial. 7 months of body burying though...
2023 - Well...it turns out that this stuff about "every garment rolled in blood will be burned" in vs 5, and it is in vs 6 that "a child is born". That makes it pretty certain that 5 is not a reference to Armageddon or anything else that far out, but to something more immediately PRIOR to the birth of Christ. Or...it says the garments "will be burned", as in future tense. There was no mass liberation of Zebulon and Naphtali just before Christ came. The Romans were not defeated in a great battle there So...the best way to read this may indeed be the way I have done so up to now. This is about a battle that the Messiah born in vs 6 will carry out when he is on the throne.
2023 - One more little trivial thing I notice. The government will be on his shoulder, NOT his shoulders. The word is singular. It depends on the version actually. NLT, NIV, NASB all make it plural. KJV, NKJV, ESV, and most others all the way back to Darby use the singular. So my guess, my bet, is that the texts available are ALL singular, and the "make it easy for the stupid people" versions make it shoulders because that's how we'd say it today. Maybe not all wrong...but not a correct translation, it is an interpretation.
2022 - There is an MSB note saying this is likely about Armageddon, at the end of tgt, and in Rev 16:16, 19:19-21. The note in MSB is on Eze 39:9. The passages quoted in Revelation don't say anything about burning spears as fuel.
6 For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. [Isa 9:6 ESV]
2022 - I had not noticed before that vs 6 is chronologically correct after vs 5. After Armageddon, Jesus assumes his earthly throne and establishes the Millennial kingdom. Surely this "order" helps cement the time that is in view. Spectacular!
In vs 7 is the phrase "...from this time forth and forevermore...". So this is all the way out to the new Jerusalem, this is post-Millennial I think...but maybe not. Jesus' reign begins during Tribulation, and he is never unseated.
2021 - It seems definitely about one of those last two battles. This is second advent stuff, and that probably makes this the end of Great Tribulation. So this places this prophecy, and Ezekiel 39.
Lots of good verses in Isaiah 9. This would be the far prophecy of the second advent where verse 2 was about the first one.
Vs 8 introduces a new section. There is a definite change here, beginning with this verse:
8 The Lord has sent a word against Jacob, and it will fall on Israel; [Isa 9:8 ESV] The phrasing implies that judgement is on both kingdoms - on ALL of original Israel, but it will fall first on the Northern Kingdom.
MSB note says that the poem from 9:8-10:4 is about warnings God has sent to Israel that have gone unheeded. It says the repeated phrase divides these accounts into 4 strophes. Whatever strophes are...maybe paragraph stanzas?
8-12 talk about how Israel is having trouble with the enemies of Rezin in Syria. This is an oblique reference to Assyria. Yet this is not the end of it. Verse 12 has a refrain that will be repeated four times:
12 ....For all this his anger has not turned away, and his hand is stretched out still. [Isa 9:12b ESV]
2021 - The attitude of the Samaritans is brought up here. It looks like they may be invaded several times, and they rebuild every time, and begin to think that they can always do this. This is their land, and God will always bring them back. But these verses say that is not the case. That's all over with, and a permanent destruction is coming. This time, even though they are conquered and their walls are broken down, they will not rebuild because this is not a correction, this is not another chance, this is punishment and permanent. God will still be angry with them even in captivity, and they will never return.
13-17, A statement of the condition - the current culture - of Israel.
2021 - This verse:
[Isa 9:16 ESV] for those who guide this people have been leading them astray, and those who are guided by them are swallowed up.
I don't see any indication that God holds those who are led responsible for their poor leadership. In those days, the led did not choose their leaders. But they did decide whether to follow the leader's ways or not, and it is clear from that very long 17th verse that the people chose to be evil also. Even their widows were evil.
Then there's this in 17:
17 Therefore the Lord does not rejoice over their young men, and has no compassion on their fatherless and widows; for everyone is godless and an evildoer, and every mouth speaks folly. For all this his anger has not turned away, and his hand is stretched out still. [Isa 9:17 ESV]
Interesting that because the leadership is so bad, the Lord has little sympathy for the weak, the children, the downtrodden. The leadership is so bad that all must suffer. In fact, this verse says the corruption is so complete in Israel that even those abused and mistreated by the corrupt are themselves corrupt. Even the widows and fatherless are corrupt. There are no good men left. And then the refrain for the second time.
2021 - These verses show that the people of Israel have not taken these conquests as lessons, and so they have not repented or reformed because of them. So God has made an end of correction, and will destroy them, and in His continuing anger toward them, they will never resettle.
2021 - It is interesting that the beginning of 9 talks about the first advent, and then carries on through to the time after Great Trib, maybe even the time after the Millennial. So we went from "a virgin shall conceive", then to more immediate prophecy of the fall of Israel and Judah, then to the time of Jesus on earth at the beginning of 9 and surely in the names he will have we get to the Millennial and beyond, into His eternal kingdom. Then in 9:8 we come back to more immediate things again. Isaiah doesn't have to be picked apart down to the "half verse" in order to get a coherent picture of what time period is being talked about, but it does change sometimes within chapters.
18-21, Israel is turning against itself, they do evil to each other, but they are never satisfied. Things never stabilize, they never realize that they are destroying themselves form within. Just like we are today! The third repeat of the refrain is at the end of 21. I think that's what it means...