
Chapter 16
Phoebe is introduced to the Roman church, from Cenchreae. Apparently she was planning a trip to Rome.
2022 - Well this is liable to get a bit long, but I am going to take the time because I think I will see this again somewhere. This verse:
1 I commend to you our sister Phoebe, a servant of the church at Cenchreae, [Rom 16:1 ESV]
1 I commend unto you Phebe our sister, which is a servant of the church which is at Cenchrea: [Rom 16:1 KJV]
1 I commend to you our sister Phoebe, who is a deacon in the church in Cenchrea. [Rom 16:1 NLT]
1 I commend to you our sister Phoebe, a deacon of the church in Cenchreae. [Rom 16:1 NIV]
1 I commend to you our sister Phoebe, a deaconess of the church at Cen'chre-ae, [Rom 16:1 RSV]
1 But I commend to you Phoebe, our sister, who is minister of the assembly which is in Cenchrea; [Rom 16:1 DBY]. Also the YLT
Also, in the ESV, there is a footnote to the word servant that says "Or deaconess". The Greek word is diakonon (transliterating here), a specific form of diakonos. In this form the word is accusative singular feminine and Strong's G1249. It is used 31 times in the KJV, and is translated servant 20 times and minister 8 times. Only three times do we find it translated "deacon". First argument of those who prefer deaconess is that the KJV was subject to it's culture, where women were oppressed by men, so it wouldn't even occur to them to translate this correctly. Ok...but it stayed that way for the first 1800 years of church history. That's a lot of occasion for this to get corrected if "servant" was the wrong translation. Second, Romans is written by Paul, and with the other things he says about women in leadership roles, if he had meant that it was ok in all the churches for women to be deacons, he'd have made that clear. So no, I don't think Paul was making Phoebe a deacon by the use of this word.
Here is the Strong's definition box:
διάκονος diákonos, dee-ak'-on-os; probably from an obsolete διάκω diákō (to run on errands; compare G1377); an attendant, i.e. (genitive case) a waiter (at table or in other menial duties); specially, a Christian teacher and pastor (technically, a deacon or deaconess):—deacon, minister, servant. Does technically mean actual? Does it mean "could be" or "usually" or does it mean "if you want to translate it that way, there's no rule against it". Does it mean "it very often means deaconess in the Bible" or does it mean "it is possible that they could have meant this, even though it never ever happened in the early church". This is a stretch to say it could mean deaconess.
Let's look at those three places where it is translated deacon:
1 Paul and Timothy, servants of Christ Jesus, To all the saints in Christ Jesus who are at Philippi, with the overseers and deacons: [Phl 1:1 ESV]. Deacons is G1249, but is dative plural masculine. Is there a neutral form? Or do we have to say that very often in Greek the masculine form is used when both sexes are in view? Can we find examples of where the masculine form OBVIOUSLY refers to both men and women? As written here, in ESV, there is no footnote that says "or deacons and deaconesses". There IS a footnote in the ESV saying that deacons could be translated as servants or ministers. So not necessarily a reference to the "office" of deacon, it could just mean sort of generally everyone there. Except...it is masculine - diakanos.
8 Deacons likewise must be dignified, not double-tongued, not addicted to much wine, not greedy for dishonest gain. [1Ti 3:8 ESV]. So first, I would note that this is the passage in 1Ti where Paul is instructing Timothy as to the qualifications required of those who would serve in the specific office of church deacon. It is not about those who generally want to wait on tables or deliver food to the poor. This is the office of deacon, as Paul taught it. The word used here is diakonos. Accusative plural masculine. Further, the adjective semnos is used to modify "diakonos" and is translated "must be MEN" because it too is the masculine form of the word, reinforcing what we have already discussed.
12 Let deacons each be the husband of one wife, managing their children and their own households well. [1Ti 3:12 ESV]. This is a continuation from verse 8. To say that deacons in this verse includes women is well nigh impossible. Husband of one wife simply did not EVER mean that lesbians could be deacons - either the office of deacon or the function of deacon. The Greek word here is diakonoi, which is the nominative plural masculine form.
That's the only three times this word is translated "deacon". I would argue that in the two verses from 1Ti, there is just no doubt at all that it is about the OFFICE of deacon and not the "function" of deacon. The use of semnos as an adjective hammers it on home. In Phil 1.1 it is less clear, but since overseers - elders - was an office, a good case - though not airtight - can be made that this use also is about the office.
Lastly, since I've spent a full hour now on this one verse, I would point out that the translations that use either deacon, deaconess, or minister in this verse, are NOT literal translations, nor do they pretend to be. NIV and NLT are interpretations that purport to give us in English what the writer 2000 years ago that they never met actually MEANT by his choice of words. They are sometimes ambiguous as to "word" but in this case at least, the are not AT ALL ambiguous as to gender.
Conclusion: To me, the office of deacon is restricted to men only. The ESV translation recognizes this, and in Rom 16.1 chooses the English word servant, because Phoebe does NOT hold the office of deacon...or deaconess. As they do elsewhere with their constant footnote about "or brothers and sisters", ESV gives a nod to feminism and/or I guess you call it "inclusiveness" by putting in a footnote that says we really don't know what Paul meant, because we cannot read his mind.
The ONLY argument against translating this servant instead of deaconess would be a demonstration of the multiple times in the Greek texts of the NT where the masculine form of a noun is used to mean BOTH male and female. There may be some, but I am unaware of them. A good argument that they don't exist is that same practice in the ESV of footnoting "brothers and sisters". Had Paul meant brothers and sisters, Greek provides a specific word for each, JUST AS ENGLISH DOES. If he didn't want to go to the trouble of using two words, he could have said "ALL" or "EVERYONE". But he did not!
One more possibility - Phoebe is called a patron:
STRONG'S G4368: προστάτις, προστατιδος, ἡ (feminine of the noun προστάτης, from προΐστημι); G4368.
a. properly, a woman set over others.
b.a female guardian, protectress, patroness, caring for the affairs of others and aiding them with her resources (A. V. succourer): Romans 16:2; cf. Passow on the word and under προστάτης at the end; (Schürer, Die Gemeindeverfassung der Juden in Rom, as above with (Leip. 1879), p. 31; Heinrici, Die Christengemeinde Korinths, in Hilgenfeld's Zeitschr. for 1876, p. 517f).
So...this too is about the things she did, the service she provided - from her own resources - which is NOT something required of the OFFICE of deacon.
Not once through vs 16 do we see anyone given a "title". No one else in the list is called a deacon, a prophet, a preacher. But all are praised for their contributions to the church, their service, their faith, their willingness to take risks for the church and for those who serve the church.
2025 - Inserting this here...though both above and below are discussion of Phoebe's true role in the church. It occurred to me this year that the word diakonos, whether masculine or feminine in form, is MOST COMMONLY a description of the role, the function, the action of the person described and NOT their Title as an officer of the church. In 1Tim3 we know clearly that it is the office that is in mind. The office was named diakonos because it would be the role of the church officer with this title to serve the body. Before the NT church, this word never meant what we now call "deacon", it ALWAYS meant servant or waiter or helper...And because of those meanings, it was an appropriate Title for those chosen for the OFFICE of servant, as outlined in so much detail in 1Tim3.
2024 - It seems odd that the word above, pronounced in English, is prostatis, prostatidos. Does that not sound a little like prostitute? Has the meaning of this Greek work changed so much? This THE ONLY place in the NT that this word is used. The NT Greek word for prostitute is in fact "porne", G4204.
2022 - Addendum - Here's one for you. If you say that the Bible is only written like this because it was so culturally affected by then current views on the minor role of women, then what do you do with this verse:
4 But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, [Gal 4:4 ESV]
or this verse:
9 making known to us the mystery of his will, according to his purpose, which he set forth in Christ 10 as a plan for the fullness of time, to unite all things in him, things in heaven and things on earth. [Eph 1:9-10 ESV].
Both of these say that Jesus came at the absolutely perfect time in the history of the world. If God wanted women in the church to have an expanded and fully equal role in all respects - including leadership and authority - then why didn't He wait until our time, when we are so much more informed as to the equality of women? Why then, instead of now, when we are so much more enlightened and would not have used such confusing language?
This is the answer to ANY cultural argument. God could have sent Jesus whenever he chose to do so. He sent him in the first century AD because that was the BEST time to do so.
Prisca (Priscilla?) and Aquila are next introduced. The list goes on. Looks like a lot of these were people Paul had met along the way and who were now in Rome, and part of the church there.
2021-2, I appeal to you, brothers, to watch out for those who cause divisions and create obstacles contrary to the doctrine that you have been taught; avoid them.
Romans 16:17 ESV
2022 - So if you challenge the meaning of diakonon in vs 1, is vs 17 about you?
Simple. Avoid them. Give them no place, no forum, don't let them teach. Don't eat or drink with them, don't go to the gym with them. We get more detail on this in the Corinthian letters. Here's the question and the greatest difficulty...who decides if their doctrine is wrong? Is creating division and obstacles the test? If so, orthodoxy is to be held onto without fail. Any teaching that divides - as whether women should preach for example - is contrary to doctrine. Not only should the doctrine be shunned but also the one who teaches it.
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